Shouldn’t all the coffee companies that tout their use of 100% Arabica beans have coffee which is low in caffine? Is this a case of false advertising?

From my understanding, Robusta is high in caffine, low in flavor and Arabica is the opposite. I’ve read that most coffee is a mixture of the two…so then why do I, a daily coffee drinker, get a caffine high from drinking one normally sized cup of 100% Arabica coffee?
Folgers Colombian, by the way

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